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Swordmaster Dragon

PostPosted: Fri Aug 04, 2006 1:51 pm


So, in my single variable class, I was taught that the condition for 1-variable (Riemann) integrability was that:

The set of points where the oscillation of the function is larger than an infinitesimal amount is...less than an infinitesimal amount. In other words, the graph does not have large jumps in more than a few points.

Is the extension of this to multivariable analysis that the set of discontinuities (plus the boundary, if integrating over an area different from a k-cell) of the function defined over a k-cell have measure 0? 'Cos otherwise, I can't think of anything conjugate.
PostPosted: Fri Aug 04, 2006 4:57 pm


That sounds correct. Because for any set of measure 0 in n dimensions, there must be some set of n-1 dimensional slices that all intersect the measure 0 set in sets of measure 0 (in n-1 dimensions), so you can integrate along the slices, and then integrate over the slices. Repeating this process gives you eventually 1-parameter curves that you can integrate over because they're discontinuous only on a set of measure 0 in 1 dimension.
Of course, considering how screwed up my analysis course was, I'm sure that I'm missing some pivotal condition that only matters in really esoteric cases.

Layra-chan
Crew


Swordmaster Dragon

PostPosted: Fri Aug 04, 2006 9:26 pm


That's a very interesting analogy (visually), but terribly complex for being straightforward. I don't understand some of the phrases..."1-parameter curves", "integrate along/over slices" being the most outstanding.

As far as my book says, the only requirement is that the set of discontinuities have measure 0, and that f be bounded on the n-cell. The basic outline of the proof is, over an n-cell (with a description of the characteristic function later):

S'pose f is integrable. Then any partition of the n-cell will have subrectangles that intersect the set B_n={x: oscillation at x is > 1/n}. From there, show that the sum of the volumes of these intersecting subrectangles can be made arbitrarily small, and so has content 0. These subrectangles cover B_n, so B_n has content 0; B_n is compact, so B_n has measure 0. The set of all discontinuities is the union of all B_n, so this set must have measure 0.

S'pose B has measure 0. Define, like above, B_e={x: oscillation at x is larger than e}. B_e has measure 0, is compact, so has content 0. Denoting the covering set {U_i}, you can create a partition such that each subrectangle either doesn't intersect B_e, or it is contained within some U_i. Then, 'cos the function is bounded, it's easy to show that the integrations over these two subsets of the partition can be made arbitrarily small, so f is integrable.

I wonder exactly what I'm taking for granted here with the real field. Much of the proof wouldn't work in the complex field, but then again I have NO experience in complex analysis.
PostPosted: Sat Aug 05, 2006 3:00 pm


A bounded function f:R^n→R is Riemann-integrable over a cell iff it is continuous almost everywhere, i.e., the set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero. There is nothing about the Riemann integral which inherently depends on the concept of interval rather than some partitionining scheme. However, a measurable function f: X→R may be discontinuous everywhere at still be Lebesgue-integrable, i.e., the preimage of every open set is measurable in X. An example of this is χ_A(x) = {1, x in A; 0, otherwise}, for, say, A = Q (rationals) over E = [0,1], which has Int_E[ χ_Q dμ ] = 1 if μ is the ordinary Lebesgue measure. Note that χ_Q is discontinuous everywhere in the reals, so that the set of its discontinuities has positive measure.

VorpalNeko
Captain


Swordmaster Dragon

PostPosted: Sun Aug 06, 2006 3:34 pm


Lebesque integral = way the heck over my head. I understand the set and function you're talking about (thanks for all the metric space help, btw), but I don't understand the terms "measurable in X" and "Lebesque measure."

It's not that the Riemann integral requires a partitioning scheme (I understand that the necessary and sufficient condition is that the discontinuities have measure 0), but that the proof did. Rather, that the partitioning made the proof easy to understand...I'm sure there's a way to prove it without referencing partitioning at all, just like continuity and differentiability. It's just that partitioning was the most...visual way to do it.
PostPosted: Sun Aug 06, 2006 5:07 pm


Swordmaster Dragon
It's not that the Riemann integral requires a partitioning scheme (I understand that the necessary and sufficient condition is that the discontinuities have measure 0), but that the proof did.

I'm not sure what you're saying here, since the Riemann integral is defined in terms of partitions in the first place. If you're integrating over an interval (cell) I, let Γ = {I_k} be a finite partition of I into nonoverlapping subintervals (cells), let |Γ| = max {μ(Ι_k)}, and pick ξ_k in I_k. Then the Riemann integral A = RInt_I[ f (x) dx ] is defined as A = lim_{|Γ|→0}[ Sum_k[ f(ξ_k) μ(I_k) ] ], if it exists. Additionally, let U_Γ = Sum_k[ [sup_{x in I_k} f(x)] μ(Ι_k) ], L_Γ = Sum_k[ [inf _{x in I_k} f(x)] μ(I_k) ]; the Darboux integral is defined as A = inf U_Γ = sup L_Γ, should the latter equality hold. The function f is Riemann-integrable iff it is Darboux-integrable, and the values coincide.

Swordmaster Dragon
Lebesque integral = way the heck over my head. I understand the set and function you're talking about (thanks for all the metric space help, btw), but I don't understand the terms "measurable in X" and "Lebesque measure."

A measure on X is a function μ:M→R', where M⊂P(X) is a collection of measurable sets that includes φ and X, R' is the set of nonnegative reals and +∞, μ(φ) = 0, φ(X) > 0, and furthermore μ is σ-additive, i.e., the measure union of countably many disjoint sets is the sum of their respective measures. The "Lebesgue measure" is the standard way of measuring content (volume) in Euclidean space, but measures are rather general. If μ(X) = 1, then it is a probability measure, and the probability of some event E∈M has probability μ(E). For example, if X is the set of outcomes of rolling a fair six-sided die, then μ({1,4}) = 1/3.

Note that not all subsets of X are guaranteed to be measurable; in fact, the axiom of choice guarantees that there are subsets of R^n that are not measurable. An interesting illustration of this is the Banach-Tarski theorem, a commonly stated corollary of which is that a ball in R^3 can be partitioned into finitely many pieces are reassembled through rigid motions only into two balls, each of the same volume as the original. This is not a contradiction because the pieces have no volume (measure) at all--not zero volume, but no volume.

What abstract integration allows one to do is integrate with regard to arbitrary measure rather than the standard concept of volume in R^n. Now, X can be an arbitrary measure space, possibly with no resemblance to Euclidean space at all. As a simple situation in which one might not expect integrals to be found, let X again be the space of six-sided die rolls with some measure μ (not necessarily a fair die), and f(x) is some value attached to die roll x (not necessarily 1-6, e.g., cash payout or penalty, etc.), then the expected value of the roll is Int_X[ f dμ ], which is really just a summation of six terms in disguise. Still, this sort of formalism allows one to erase the distinction between discrete and continuous probabilities. Much more complicated applications exist, of course, but I'd rather not go into them at this time.

I believe baby Rudin covers the Lebesgue integral at the very end; papa Rudin starts with it in the very first chapter. Additional note: there are systems of probability in which probability measures are only required to be finitely additive rather than σ-additive, but they invalidate standard and useful results like the continuity theorems.

VorpalNeko
Captain


Swordmaster Dragon

PostPosted: Tue Aug 08, 2006 8:45 pm


VorpalNeko
I'm not sure what you're saying here, since the Riemann integral is defined in terms of partitions in the first place. If you're integrating over an interval (cell) I, let Γ = {I_k} be a finite partition of I into nonoverlapping subintervals (cells), let |Γ| = max {μ(Ι_k)}, and pick ξ_k in I_k. Then the Riemann integral A = RInt_I[ f (x) dx ] is defined as A = lim_{|Γ|→0}[ Sum_k[ f(ξ_k) μ(I_k) ] ], if it exists. Additionally, let U_Γ = Sum_k[ [sup_{x in I_k} f(x)] μ(Ι_k) ], L_Γ = Sum_k[ [inf _{x in I_k} f(x)] μ(I_k) ]; the Darboux integral is defined as A = inf U_Γ = sup L_Γ, should the latter equality hold. The function f is Riemann-integrable iff it is Darboux-integrable, and the values coincide.


What I was saying was that the necessary and sufficient condition for a Riemann integral - like the ending value of the integral - is independent of the partitioning scheme, that's all. Computing the integral requires a partition, but finding whether or not the function IS integrable doesn't. The latter was my point of correlation. I started this thread with the correlation between "total length of discontinuities infintesimally small (single-var)" to "set of discontinuities have measure 0." But do you know of a way to prove this necessary and sufficient condition without referencing partitioning?

Regardless of whether or not that was the point, I don't understand the notation here, either. Specifically, I don't know what the function μ(Ι_k) is. I guess what I had learned was the Darboux integral, not the Riemann integral. At least, the definition of the Darboux integral you gave looks much more familiar...without writing it out for myself, I wouldn't know for sure.

VorpalNeko
A measure on X is a function μ:M→R', where M⊂P(X) is a collection of measurable sets that includes φ and X, R' is the set of nonnegative reals and +∞, μ(φ) = 0, φ(X) > 0, and furthermore μ is σ-additive, i.e., the measure union of countably many disjoint sets is the sum of their respective measures. The "Lebesgue measure" is the standard way of measuring content (volume) in Euclidean space, but measures are rather general. If μ(X) = 1, then it is a probability measure, and the probability of some event E∈M has probability μ(E). For example, if X is the set of outcomes of rolling a fair six-sided die, then μ({1,4}) = 1/3.

Note that not all subsets of X are guaranteed to be measurable; in fact, the axiom of choice guarantees that there are subsets of R^n that are not measurable. An interesting illustration of this is the Banach-Tarski theorem, a commonly stated corollary of which is that a ball in R^3 can be partitioned into finitely many pieces are reassembled through rigid motions only into two balls, each of the same volume as the original. This is not a contradiction because the pieces have no volume (measure) at all--not zero volume, but no volume.

What abstract integration allows one to do is integrate with regard to arbitrary measure rather than the standard concept of volume in R^n. Now, X can be an arbitrary measure space, possibly with no resemblance to Euclidean space at all. As a simple situation in which one might not expect integrals to be found, let X again be the space of six-sided die rolls with some measure μ (not necessarily a fair die), and f(x) is some value attached to die roll x (not necessarily 1-6, e.g., cash payout or penalty, etc.), then the expected value of the roll is Int_X[ f dμ ], which is really just a summation of six terms in disguise. Still, this sort of formalism allows one to erase the distinction between discrete and continuous probabilities. Much more complicated applications exist, of course, but I'd rather not go into them at this time.

I believe baby Rudin covers the Lebesgue integral at the very end; papa Rudin starts with it in the very first chapter. Additional note: there are systems of probability in which probability measures are only required to be finitely additive rather than σ-additive, but they invalidate standard and useful results like the continuity theorems.


I think I understand the systems and goals of Lebesgue integration, but not the formulation of the Lebesgue measure in other metrics. I also don't understand the notation behind M⊂P(X)...is P(X) the set of all sets in X then?
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