If homosexuality between men in ancient Egypt was "normal" or common, then why wasn't it between women? I'm curious.
Posted: Sat Dec 26, 2009 7:02 am
I'm thinking it wasn't because it was uncommon, but perhaps it was just less seen....
evolvingwolf
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Tifey_Lewis
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Posted: Sun Dec 27, 2009 8:15 pm
Alright. Thank you for your answer.
Posted: Tue Jan 05, 2010 10:39 am
Or maybe men just didn't care about writing about it. Like in Ancient Greece. No one cared much if the women were together, or at least we don't hear of it. On the other hand, it was almost considered unnatural if an elder man didn't have a younger lover. It was actually looked down upon.
Because, like a few hundred years ago, they didn't think it was possible for two women to have intermate relations.
I'm going to break my only rules just explaining this .....
Basically when a man has sex with another man they have a**l or oral sex. He has 'something' to put 'somewhere' whereas a woman doesn't have a p***s to put anywhere so they can't have homosexual sex.
In ancient Egypt homosexuality was seen how it is today, it's accepted but not really liked. A perfect family to them was a man and woman who were married and had lots of children. Basically a homosexual family can't make children.